Note: Formerly abbreviated “PE ECE” on this site — this page covers the NCEES PE Electrical and Computer: Computer Engineering specialty (effective October 2025), not the separate PE Electrical and Computer: Electronics, Controls, and Communications exam effective April 2026.

The PE Electrical and Computer: Computer Engineering exam tests your ability to apply computer engineering principles across hardware, software, and systems-level topics in 85 questions over a single day. This breadth—from circuit analysis through cybersecurity—makes targeted practice essential. The problems below mirror the format and depth of the actual NCEES exam.

These 10 practice problems span the major topic areas tested on the PE Computer Engineering exam: circuit analysis, electronics, signal processing, control systems, communications, digital systems, computer networks, computer architecture, software engineering, and cybersecurity. Each includes four answer choices and a detailed, step-by-step solution.

You will need the NCEES PE Electrical and Computer Reference Handbook and a calculator to work through these problems. All formulas used are either derived from first principles or found in the reference handbook.

Tip: Work each problem on your own before checking the solution. On the real exam you will average roughly 6 minutes per question, so hold yourself to that pace here.


Problem 1: Thévenin Equivalent Circuit

A linear DC circuit consists of a 24 V ideal voltage source in series with a 6 Ω resistor (R1). A 12 Ω resistor (R2) is connected from the junction node to ground. Terminals A and B are placed across R2 (terminal A at the junction, terminal B at ground). What is most nearly the Thévenin equivalent voltage and resistance seen from terminals A-B?

  • A) VTh = 12 V, RTh = 6 Ω
  • B) VTh = 16 V, RTh = 4 Ω
  • C) VTh = 18 V, RTh = 3 Ω
  • D) VTh = 24 V, RTh = 12 Ω
Show Solution

Answer: B

The Thévenin equivalent reduces any linear circuit to a single voltage source in series with a single resistance as seen from two terminals.

Step 1 — Find VTh (open-circuit voltage across A-B):

With terminals A-B open, no current flows through R2 from any external load, but current does flow from the source through R1 and R2 (since R2 connects junction to ground). By voltage divider:

VTh = VS × R2 / (R1 + R2) = 24 × 12 / (6 + 12) = 24 × 12 / 18 = 16 V

Step 2 — Find RTh (equivalent resistance with source zeroed):

Replace the 24 V source with a short circuit. Looking into terminals A-B, R1 and R2 are in parallel:

RTh = R1 ∥ R2 = (R1 × R2) / (R1 + R2) = (6 × 12) / (6 + 12) = 72 / 18 = 4 Ω

Verification: The short-circuit current would be ISC = VTh / RTh = 16 / 4 = 4 A. We can verify independently: shorting A-B places R2 in parallel with the short (yielding 0 Ω), so all source current flows through R1: ISC = 24 / 6 = 4 A. Confirmed.

Key concept: Thévenin’s theorem is foundational for the PE Computer Engineering exam. To find VTh, compute the open-circuit voltage. To find RTh, deactivate all independent sources (short voltage sources, open current sources) and find the equivalent resistance. Always verify by checking that VTh / RTh equals the short-circuit current.

Problem 2: Common-Source MOSFET Amplifier Voltage Gain

An N-channel MOSFET is configured as a common-source amplifier with a drain resistor RD = 4 kΩ and a bypassed source resistor. The MOSFET has a transconductance gm = 5 mS. Assuming the output resistance ro of the MOSFET is much larger than RD, what is most nearly the magnitude of the small-signal voltage gain |Av|?

  • A) 5
  • B) 10
  • C) 20
  • D) 40
Show Solution

Answer: C

For a common-source MOSFET amplifier with a bypassed source resistor, the small-signal voltage gain is determined by the transconductance and the drain resistance.

Step 1 — Write the gain expression:

With the source resistor bypassed (AC-grounded) and ro ≫ RD:

Av = −gm × RD

Step 2 — Substitute values:

Av = −(5 × 10−3) × (4 × 103) = −20

Step 3 — Take the magnitude:

|Av| = 20

Verification: The gain formula Av = −gm RD comes from the small-signal model where vout = −gm vgs × RD and vgs = vin (since RS is bypassed). Units check: mS × kΩ = (10−3)(103) = dimensionless. Correct.

Key concept: The negative sign indicates a 180° phase inversion, which is characteristic of the common-source configuration. If the source resistor were not bypassed, the gain would reduce to Av = −gm RD / (1 + gm RS), providing negative feedback that stabilizes the bias point at the cost of lower gain. On the PE Computer Engineering exam, know all three MOSFET amplifier configurations: common-source (voltage gain), common-drain/source-follower (voltage buffer), and common-gate (current buffer).

Problem 3: Z-Transform System Stability Analysis

A discrete-time LTI system has the transfer function:

H(z) = (z − 0.5) / (z2 − 1.2z + 0.32)

Which statement most accurately describes the stability of this system?

  • A) Unstable — one pole lies outside the unit circle
  • B) Marginally stable — one pole lies on the unit circle
  • C) Stable — both poles at z = 0.8 and z = 0.4, inside the unit circle
  • D) Stable — both poles at z = 0.6 and z = 0.6, inside the unit circle
Show Solution

Answer: C

A causal discrete-time LTI system is BIBO stable if and only if all poles of H(z) lie strictly inside the unit circle (|z| < 1).

Step 1 — Find the poles by solving the denominator:

z2 − 1.2z + 0.32 = 0

Using the quadratic formula: z = (1.2 ± √(1.44 − 1.28)) / 2

Step 2 — Evaluate the discriminant:

Δ = 1.44 − 1.28 = 0.16

√0.16 = 0.4

Step 3 — Compute the pole locations:

z1 = (1.2 + 0.4) / 2 = 1.6 / 2 = 0.8

z2 = (1.2 − 0.4) / 2 = 0.8 / 2 = 0.4

Step 4 — Check stability:

|z1| = 0.8 < 1 and |z2| = 0.4 < 1. Both poles lie strictly inside the unit circle, so the system is stable.

Verification: We can confirm by expanding: (z − 0.8)(z − 0.4) = z2 − 1.2z + 0.32. This matches the denominator exactly.

Key concept: For discrete-time systems, stability requires all poles inside the unit circle (|z| < 1). This is analogous to continuous-time systems where stability requires all poles in the left-half s-plane (Re(s) < 0). The zero at z = 0.5 affects the frequency response shape but not stability. On the PE Computer Engineering exam, always factor the denominator to find pole locations before drawing conclusions about stability.

Problem 4: Root Locus Stability — Gain Margin

A unity-feedback control system has the open-loop transfer function:

G(s) = K / [s(s + 2)(s + 5)]

Using the Routh-Hurwitz stability criterion, what is the maximum value of gain K for which the closed-loop system remains stable?

  • A) K < 35
  • B) K < 50
  • C) K < 70
  • D) K < 100
Show Solution

Answer: C

The closed-loop characteristic equation for a unity-feedback system is 1 + G(s) = 0, which gives us the denominator polynomial to test with Routh-Hurwitz.

Step 1 — Form the characteristic equation:

s(s + 2)(s + 5) + K = 0

Expanding: s3 + 7s2 + 10s + K = 0

Step 2 — Construct the Routh array:

s3110
s27K
s1(70 − K) / 70
s0K

Step 3 — Apply stability conditions (all first-column entries must be positive):

  • s2 row: 7 > 0 (always satisfied)
  • s1 row: (70 − K) / 7 > 0 → K < 70
  • s0 row: K > 0

Result: The system is stable for 0 < K < 70. The maximum gain for stability is K = 70.

Verification: At K = 70, the s1 row becomes zero, indicating imaginary-axis poles. The auxiliary equation from the s2 row is 7s2 + 70 = 0, giving s = ±j√10 ≈ ±j3.16 rad/s. These are purely imaginary poles confirming marginal stability at exactly K = 70.

Key concept: The Routh-Hurwitz criterion is the standard analytical method for determining closed-loop stability without computing the actual root locations. For a third-order system s3 + as2 + bs + c = 0, the critical stability condition simplifies to ab > c. Here: 7 × 10 = 70 > K, confirming K < 70. On the PE Computer Engineering exam, this technique appears in both control systems and signal processing contexts.

Problem 5: Shannon Channel Capacity

A communication channel has a bandwidth of 4 MHz and a signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) of 24 dB. Using the Shannon-Hartley theorem, what is most nearly the maximum theoretical data rate (channel capacity)?

  • A) 16 Mbps
  • B) 24 Mbps
  • C) 32 Mbps
  • D) 48 Mbps
Show Solution

Answer: C

The Shannon-Hartley theorem gives the maximum theoretical channel capacity for an additive white Gaussian noise (AWGN) channel:

C = B × log2(1 + SNRlinear)

Step 1 — Convert SNR from dB to linear:

SNRdB = 10 × log10(SNRlinear)

24 = 10 × log10(SNRlinear)

log10(SNRlinear) = 2.4

SNRlinear = 102.4 ≈ 251.19

Step 2 — Apply the Shannon-Hartley formula:

C = 4 × 106 × log2(1 + 251.19)

C = 4 × 106 × log2(252.19)

Step 3 — Evaluate the logarithm:

Since 28 = 256, we know log2(256) = 8. Since 252.19 is very close to 256:

log2(252.19) = ln(252.19) / ln(2) = 5.530 / 0.6931 ≈ 7.98

Step 4 — Compute the capacity:

C = 4 × 106 × 7.98 ≈ 31.9 × 106 bps ≈ 32 Mbps

Verification: If SNR were exactly 255 (linear), then 1 + 255 = 256 = 28, and C = 4 × 8 = 32 Mbps exactly. Our SNR of 102.4 = 251.19 gives a result very close to this, confirming 32 Mbps is the best answer.

Key concept: The Shannon limit represents an absolute upper bound—no real coding scheme can exceed it. In practice, modern systems using turbo codes or LDPC codes can approach within 1 dB of the Shannon limit. Note that doubling the bandwidth doubles the capacity, but doubling the SNR adds only one more bit per Hz of bandwidth (since log2 is logarithmic). On the PE Computer Engineering exam, always convert dB to linear before applying the formula.

Problem 6: Finite State Machine — Mealy vs. Moore

A digital designer needs a sequence detector that asserts its output HIGH immediately when the input bit pattern “101” is detected on a serial input line (with possible overlapping sequences). The system uses a single-bit input X and single-bit output Z, clocked by a rising-edge clock. If a Mealy machine is used instead of a Moore machine, what is the minimum number of states required?

  • A) 2 states (Mealy) vs. 3 states (Moore)
  • B) 3 states (Mealy) vs. 4 states (Moore)
  • C) 3 states (Mealy) vs. 5 states (Moore)
  • D) 4 states (Mealy) vs. 5 states (Moore)
Show Solution

Answer: B

A Mealy machine produces outputs that depend on both the current state and the current input, while a Moore machine’s outputs depend only on the current state. This fundamental difference means Mealy machines typically need fewer states.

Step 1 — Design the Mealy machine for detecting “101”:

  • S0 (initial / no match): Waiting for first “1”
  • S1 (seen “1”): Last bit was 1
  • S2 (seen “10”): Last two bits were “10”

Transitions: In S2, if input X = 1, output Z = 1 (detected “101”) and return to S1 (since this “1” could start a new overlapping sequence). That gives 3 states.

Step 2 — Design the Moore machine for detecting “101”:

Since the Moore output depends only on the state, we need a dedicated output state:

  • S0 (initial): Z = 0
  • S1 (seen “1”): Z = 0
  • S2 (seen “10”): Z = 0
  • S3 (seen “101”): Z = 1

From S3 with overlap detection, transitions continue based on the next input. This requires 4 states.

Key concept: A Mealy machine can often detect a sequence with one fewer state than a Moore machine because the output can react to the triggering input in the same clock cycle, without needing a separate “output asserted” state. However, Mealy outputs can glitch between clock edges if the input changes asynchronously, while Moore outputs are synchronized to the clock. On the PE Computer Engineering exam, know how to draw state diagrams for both types and convert between them.

Problem 7: Subnet Mask Calculation

A network engineer must divide the 192.168.10.0/24 network into subnets, each supporting at least 30 hosts. What is the correct subnet mask, and how many usable subnets can be created?

  • A) 255.255.255.192 (/26), 4 subnets
  • B) 255.255.255.224 (/27), 8 subnets
  • C) 255.255.255.240 (/28), 16 subnets
  • D) 255.255.255.128 (/25), 2 subnets
Show Solution

Answer: B

Subnetting requires balancing the number of host bits (for addressable devices) against subnet bits (for the number of subnets).

Step 1 — Determine the minimum host bits needed:

Usable hosts per subnet = 2n − 2 (subtracting the network and broadcast addresses).

We need at least 30 hosts: 2n − 2 ≥ 30

24 − 2 = 14 (not enough). 25 − 2 = 30 (exactly 30). So we need 5 host bits.

Step 2 — Calculate the subnet mask:

Total address bits: 32. Host bits: 5. Network + subnet bits: 32 − 5 = 27.

Subnet mask = /27 = 255.255.255.224

(The last octet: 256 − 25 = 256 − 32 = 224)

Step 3 — Count the usable subnets:

Original network: /24. New mask: /27. Borrowed bits: 27 − 24 = 3.

Number of subnets = 23 = 8 subnets

Step 4 — Verify:

Each subnet has 25 = 32 addresses, of which 30 are usable. Total addresses: 8 × 32 = 256 = 28, which correctly accounts for the entire /24 block.

Key concept: When the problem says “at least 30 hosts,” you must find the smallest power of 2 that satisfies 2n − 2 ≥ 30. Using n = 5 gives exactly 30, which meets the requirement. Choosing n = 4 (yielding only 14 hosts) would be insufficient. On the PE Computer Engineering exam, subnetting is a core networking skill—practice converting between CIDR notation, dotted-decimal masks, and host/subnet counts until it becomes automatic.

Problem 8: Cache Hit Rate Calculation

A processor has a direct-mapped cache with 256 cache lines and a block size of 64 bytes. A program sequentially accesses every element of an integer array containing 4,096 elements (each element is 4 bytes). Assuming the cache is initially empty (cold start), what is most nearly the cache hit rate during the first complete pass through the array?

  • A) 75.00%
  • B) 87.50%
  • C) 93.75%
  • D) 96.88%
Show Solution

Answer: C

A direct-mapped cache with spatial locality benefits from loading entire blocks on each miss, so subsequent accesses to the same block are hits.

Step 1 — Determine elements per cache block:

Block size = 64 bytes. Element size = 4 bytes.

Elements per block = 64 / 4 = 16 elements

Step 2 — Count the total number of blocks accessed:

Total elements = 4,096. Elements per block = 16.

Blocks accessed = 4,096 / 16 = 256 blocks

Step 3 — Determine hits and misses per block:

For each block, the first access is a compulsory miss (cold start). The remaining 15 accesses are hits (the block is now in cache).

Since we have 256 cache lines and access exactly 256 distinct blocks sequentially, there are no conflict misses (each block maps to a unique cache line in sequential access of a contiguous array).

Step 4 — Compute the hit rate:

Total accesses = 4,096

Total misses = 256 (one per block)

Total hits = 4,096 − 256 = 3,840

Hit rate = 3,840 / 4,096 = 15/16 = 93.75%

Verification: The miss rate = 1/16 = 6.25%. This makes intuitive sense: out of every 16 consecutive accesses within one block, only the first one misses. 100% − 6.25% = 93.75%.

Key concept: The hit rate for sequential access depends primarily on the block size relative to element size. With a block size of B bytes and element size of E bytes, the cold-start hit rate for sequential access is (B/E − 1) / (B/E) = 1 − E/B. Here: 1 − 4/64 = 1 − 1/16 = 93.75%. On the PE Computer Engineering exam, also consider conflict misses (when multiple addresses map to the same cache line) and capacity misses (when the working set exceeds total cache size).

Problem 9: Algorithm Time Complexity Analysis

Consider the following algorithm fragment where n is a positive integer:

count = 0
for i = 1 to n:
    for j = 1 to i:
        count = count + 1

What is the time complexity of this algorithm, and what is the exact value of count after execution?

  • A) O(n), count = n
  • B) O(n log n), count = n × log2(n)
  • C) O(n2), count = n(n + 1)/2
  • D) O(n2), count = n2
Show Solution

Answer: C

Nested loops with a dependent inner bound produce a triangular iteration pattern.

Step 1 — Count the total iterations:

The inner loop runs j = 1 to i for each value of i. The total number of iterations of the innermost operation is:

Total = ∑i=1n i = 1 + 2 + 3 + … + n = n(n + 1) / 2

Step 2 — Verify with a small example (n = 4):

i=1: j runs 1 time. i=2: j runs 2 times. i=3: j runs 3 times. i=4: j runs 4 times.

Total = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 10 = 4(5)/2 = 10. Confirmed.

Step 3 — Determine the asymptotic complexity:

n(n + 1) / 2 = (n2 + n) / 2 = (1/2)n2 + (1/2)n

The dominant term is n2, so the time complexity is O(n2).

Key concept: When the inner loop bound depends on the outer loop variable, you must sum the series rather than simply multiplying the bounds. The sum 1 + 2 + … + n = n(n+1)/2 is one of the most important identities in algorithm analysis. Note that answer D gives n2 for the exact count, which would be the case if the inner loop ran from 1 to n (independent bounds). The dependent bound produces a triangular number, which is roughly half of n2. On the PE Computer Engineering exam, be prepared to distinguish between O(n2) and Θ(n2)—both apply here since the sum is exactly quadratic.

Problem 10: RSA Private Key Computation

In a simplified RSA key generation exercise, the following parameters are chosen: primes p = 11 and q = 13, giving n = 143. The Euler’s totient is φ(n) = (p − 1)(q − 1) = 120. The public exponent is chosen as e = 7. What is the private key exponent d?

  • A) d = 23
  • B) d = 71
  • C) d = 103
  • D) d = 113
Show Solution

Answer: C

The RSA private exponent d is the modular multiplicative inverse of e modulo φ(n). That is, we need d such that e × d ≡ 1 (mod φ(n)).

Step 1 — Verify that e and φ(n) are coprime:

gcd(7, 120): 120 = 17 × 7 + 1, so gcd(7, 120) = 1. Valid choice of e.

Step 2 — Solve 7d ≡ 1 (mod 120):

We need 7d = 1 + 120k for some integer k.

Testing systematically: d = (1 + 120k) / 7

  • k = 1: (1 + 120) / 7 = 121 / 7 = 17.29 (not integer)
  • k = 2: (1 + 240) / 7 = 241 / 7 = 34.43 (not integer)
  • k = 3: (1 + 360) / 7 = 361 / 7 = 51.57 (not integer)
  • k = 4: (1 + 480) / 7 = 481 / 7 = 68.71 (not integer)
  • k = 5: (1 + 600) / 7 = 601 / 7 = 85.86 (not integer)
  • k = 6: (1 + 720) / 7 = 721 / 7 = 103 (integer!)

So d = 103.

Step 3 — Verify:

7 × 103 = 721. And 721 / 120 = 6 remainder 1. So 721 mod 120 = 1. Confirmed: 7 × 103 ≡ 1 (mod 120).

Verification of the other options:

  • d = 23: 7 × 23 = 161. 161 mod 120 = 41 ≠ 1
  • d = 71: 7 × 71 = 497. 497 mod 120 = 17 ≠ 1
  • d = 113: 7 × 113 = 791. 791 mod 120 = 791 − 6(120) = 791 − 720 = 71 ≠ 1

Key concept: RSA security depends on the difficulty of factoring n into p and q. If an attacker can factor n, they can compute φ(n) and then easily find d using the extended Euclidean algorithm. For real RSA systems, p and q are each 1,024+ bits, making factoring computationally infeasible. On the PE Computer Engineering exam, you should be able to compute modular inverses for small numbers and understand why the relationship e × d ≡ 1 (mod φ(n)) guarantees that encryption followed by decryption recovers the original message: Med ≡ M (mod n) by Euler’s theorem.


Continue your PE Computer Engineering preparation:

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Use the matching PE Computer Engineering reference/code guide Rehearse the section and subsection lanes before timed practice. PE guidance stays section-based because supplied handbooks, standards, and editions can vary. Pair it with free PE Computer Engineering practice.
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Frequently Asked Questions

What topics appear on the PE Computer Engineering exam?

The PE Computer Engineering exam covers circuit analysis, electronics, signal processing, control systems, communications, digital systems, computer networks, computer architecture, software engineering, and cybersecurity. It tests applied computer engineering knowledge across 85 questions in a single day.

How should I prepare for the PE Computer Engineering exam?

Work through 200-300 practice problems across all topic areas. Focus on the high-weight topics like digital systems, computer networks, and software engineering. Practice with the NCEES PE Electrical and Computer Reference Handbook until you can navigate it quickly under timed conditions.

What Topics Does the PE Computer Engineering Exam Cover?

The NCEES PE Computer Engineering exam covers a broad range of computer engineering knowledge areas. Here is how the problems above align to the major topic areas:

  • Circuit Analysis — Problem 1 (Thévenin equivalents, network theorems, DC/AC analysis)
  • Electronics — Problem 2 (MOSFET amplifiers, transistor biasing, op-amp circuits)
  • Signal Processing — Problem 3 (Z-transforms, DFT, filter design, stability)
  • Control Systems — Problem 4 (root locus, Routh-Hurwitz, Bode plots, feedback stability)
  • Communications — Problem 5 (Shannon capacity, modulation, channel coding, SNR)
  • Digital Systems — Problem 6 (state machines, combinational/sequential logic, FPGA design)
  • Computer Networks — Problem 7 (subnetting, TCP/IP, routing protocols, network security)
  • Computer Architecture — Problem 8 (cache memory, pipelining, instruction sets, performance)
  • Software Engineering — Problem 9 (algorithm analysis, data structures, design patterns, testing)
  • Cybersecurity — Problem 10 (RSA encryption, authentication, access control, threat analysis)

How Should You Use These Practice Problems?

Simply reading solutions is not enough—active practice is what builds exam-day fluency. Here are strategies to maximize your preparation:

  • Simulate exam conditions. Work all 10 problems in one sitting with only the PE Electrical and Computer Reference Handbook open. Give yourself 60 minutes total.
  • Diagnose your weaknesses. If you missed the Z-transform or control systems problems, drill more signal processing fundamentals. If networking tripped you up, practice subnetting until you can do it in under a minute.
  • Redo problems you got wrong. Wait 48 hours, then attempt the missed problems again without looking at the solutions. Repetition builds the automaticity you need under time pressure.
  • Bridge theory to practice. The PE Computer Engineering exam emphasizes applied knowledge. For each formula you memorize, also understand when and why it applies in a real engineering scenario.

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Our question bank covers both the hardware-focused topics—circuits, electronics, signal processing—and the software-heavy areas like computer networks, architecture, and cybersecurity that dominate the modern PE Computer Engineering exam. Start practicing today and build the confidence you need to pass on your first attempt.